Herein is the principle and irreconcilable difference between social liberalism and libertarianism: positive versus negative rights. I believe a "hick" like Joshie should be allowed to do whatever he pleases with his own property, so long as it does not prevent me from doing the same. Requiring Joshie by force of government to use his property (his money) to hire someone he doesn't want to, for any reason, is an infringement of his right to his property the exact same as if you required Joshie by force of government to use his property (his money) to purchase any other good or service that he doesn't want. Forcing Joshie to use his resources to hire a short person if he doesn't like short people, a black person if he doesn't like black people, or a woman if he doesn't like women is no different from an individual rights basis than forcing him to use his resources to purchase a muffin he doesn't want instead of the doughnut that he does, or a bike he doesn't want instead of a car that he does, or a beer he doesn't want instead of a soda that he does. You would rather subject yourself to the loss of your property rights than allow Joshie the unfettered right to his. I'd rather let Joshie make his choices, and I mine.what else should we leave to hicks like Joshie to decide?
This is pretty much why we could argue about this in circles forever. Things are made legal or illegal for some of the very reasons you stipulate as immaterial. You yourself admit that discriminatory decisions can be harmful to people, yet in contradiction, expect them to remain legal.Whether discrimination is bad or fair or productive or counter-productive or efficient or inefficient is immaterial to whether it should be legal or illegal *from a private hiring perspective*.
Your redhead example is out of context because there is no buying decision involved and therefore no direct, economic derivatives. The government DO in fact take on risk and responsibility for employees because they will have to create stimulus, via investment/injections, if a big enough group is pushed out of employment.I have a sexual preference for women and a discriminatory preference against red-heads. It makes no more sense for the government to tell me that I have to date men and red heads than it does for the government to tell me who I can or cannot hire. Unless and until the government takes on the tangible risk and responsibility for my employees, they should not have a place in my hiring decisions.
This cannot be achieved. You are asking the law to ignore the act of discrimination by individuals. However, if the law is deliberately made to ignore discrimination then it becomes party to the act itself and thus discriminatory. You cannot achieve both. By ignoring gay marriage, for example, the law discriminates - it gives legal right for group A to trample on group B by openly failing to protect group B via proportionate rights.the law should "discriminate" against no one, but individuals should be free to "discriminate" against or among anyone they like
Discrimination does not actually exist in your example. If the set of physical attributes are directly related to the function of the job then there might be a reasonable justification for only employing people with those attributes (in the UK at least). In different circumstances, different physical attributes can be genuine occupational qualifications; It is reasonable to only employ a female toilet attendant for a women's toilet. In such a case, discrimination is not taking place - there is only the qualified and unqualified for the owner to choose between. Obviously, because of the presence of anti-discrimination law, if people feel that there is discrimination present in the employment decision then they are given the right to challenge it - which goes back to my comment above.Why is it okay for one business owner to discriminate against someone based on one set of physical attributes, but not okay for another to discriminate against someone because of a different set of physical attributes?